/u/[deleted]'s posts in /r/askhistorians
Why did countries with different languages change the names of famous people to fit the language. E.G. Cristoforo Colombo to Cristobal Colon to Christopher Columbus. Did they do this back then or is this a more modern change for historical purposes.
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How did people in the old days deal with constant food poisoning before modern plumbing and hygiene standards?
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Was it strange to anyone that the Germanics leaders like Odoacer used the word “Rex” to describe themselves, given that they ruled over a Roman population and given the tabooness of kingship in the Roman world?
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